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To: caww

****Your post reads that the following is ‘Not true”....
****…..**As soon as a Roman Catholic argues from Scripture he denies the need for an infallible magisterium. Once he points to Rome apart from Scripture, he shows himself to be a blind follower of Rome in the face of Scripture. ** ****

The problem is that the statement you quoted inaccurately describes a situation as an either-or situation. Catholic teaching has as its basis Scripture, the Magisterium, and Tradition, which last is a restrictive term referring to those teachings and understandings which have always existed in the Catholic Church.

No Catholic teaching can contradict any one of those three. What happens wrt Scripture in the Catholic Church is that the passage is interpreted in the light of the perennial teaching of the Church by the Magisterium, which has the authority conferred on it by Christ and the protection from teaching error of the Holy Spirit.

What do the Protestants have? (I am not bashing, but asking these questions.) How is it that the Protestants have at least 5 explanations about baptism, from being totally necessary to being merely symbolic? From being conferred upon infants to limited to adults? From needing full immersion to needing only a bit poured over the head? Where did all these different ideas come from, and does it not make Protestants uncomfortable that there are all these different teachings?


66 posted on 04/27/2015 10:38:47 AM PDT by Chicory
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To: Chicory
Do catholics immerse or sprinkle?

What is the Biblical model?

82 posted on 04/27/2015 4:39:58 PM PDT by ealgeone
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