Posted on 04/01/2015 10:22:59 AM PDT by amessenger4god
We have addressed the accusation before that the pre-trib rapture theory was invented by a Scottish girl named Margaret MacDonald in the early 19th century. This is now widely known to be factually incorrect and in fact there are numerous references to a pre-trib rapture in late 18th century American writing, as well as contemporary (at that time) Catholic writings such as Manuel Lacunza's The Coming of Messiah in Glory and Majesty.
Additionally, Chuck Missler has brought to light a writing from "Ephraem the Syrian" (b. 306; d. 373 AD) where this early Church deacon wrote in unequivocal language the following:
"For all the saints and Elect of God are gathered, prior to the tribulation that is to come, and are taken to the Lord lest they see the confusion that is to overwhelm the world because of our sins."
"We who see that terrible things have begun, and know that still more terrible things are imminent, may regard it as the greatest advantage to depart from it as quickly as possible... And do you not give God thanks, do you not congratulate yourself, that by an earlier departure you are taken away, and delivered from the shipwrecks and disasters that are imminent... Let us greet the day which assigns each of us to his own home, which snatches us hence, and sets us free from the snares of the world, and restores us to paradise and the kingdom."
"And therefore, when in the end the Church shall be suddenly caught up from this, it is said, There shall [then] be tribulation such as has not been since the beginning, neither shall be. [Matthew 24:21] For this is the last contest of the righteous, in which, when they overcome they are crowned with incorruption. [1 Corinthians 15]"
How can you be a critic when you obviously don't have a clue what I'm talking about???
Your original comment was already contradictory. You say the firstfruits are part of the first resurrection. That cannot be correct, because they are already in heaven in Rev. 16. Shortly after John sees them, he hears:
“Then I heard a voice from heaven say, Write this: Blessed are the dead who die in the Lord from now on.”
Rev. 16:13
How can the firstfruits be a part of the first resurrection, if this statement shows the resurrection hasn’t happened yet? There are only two general resurrections, one for the righteous, and one to judgement. So those who die after the first resurrection are not blessed, far from it. This is a major contradiction just in your original post, so there is no need to delve any further into your theory to see that it is flawed.
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