Did the men and councils at 180 A.D. and from 180 A.D. onward possess inspiration in placing the 27 NT and 39 OT books to be bound together?
If so, was this inspiration equal to inspired scripture?
If not, and inspired scripture is without error, then that would account for...
1.) The oldest Greek manuscripts (Codex A, S and B) each having at least one book that is not considered to be inspired scripture by Protestants, Catholics and Coptics and that would account for
2.) the Clermont List and the Muratorian fragment having books that Protestants, Catholics and Coptics do not consider to be inspired scripture.
God did not send down a note attached to 27 NT and 39 OT books saying, “Here are your inspired books to read.” men put them together, but can men become Absolute Beings when doing so if there is no inspiration in compilation. But if there is inspiration in compiling, then how do we account for 1.) and 2.)?
Did the men and councils at 180 A.D. and from 180 A.D. onward possess inspiration in placing the 27 NT and 39 OT books to be bound together
no Bible contained only 66 books until the 16th century when 7 books of the OT contained in the Greek Septuigant were thrown out.
I’m no expert in Christianese. I don’t need a doctorate in theology to have a retationship with Christ...some of the rudest Christians I’ve ever met do though. Think its the forest for the trees type of thing with them....