Of course not, within the bounds of a covenant marriage...
I didn't mean to confuse you, but if Mary is now considered "preserved exempt from all stain of original sin." ... the fall of man...that would mean she is no longer has knowledge of good and evil in a pre-fall of man condition...
Gen 3:16 was a condition placed by God on all women after the fall of man...
Ah, whose opinion is this?
How can you live in a society that is based on the Law as received from God by Moses and not discern both good and evil? For Mary to be sinless, she must have obeyed both the moral and ceremonial aspects. Did she not say, "How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?"
Doesn't this imply that she knows it would not be good to "know" a man--even her espoused husband--during the espousal time?
I would think this theory would run into a lot of opposition.