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To: CynicalBear

Craig S. Keener, another Protestant scholar, on page 90 of The IVP Bible Background Commentary of the New Testament, states:

“In Greek (here), they (referring to petros and petra) are cognate terms that were used interchangeably by this period…

” D. A. Carson points out the big/small distinction did exist in Greek, but is found only in ancient Greek (used from the eighth to the fourth century B.C.), and even there it is mostly confined to poetry.

The New Testament was written in Koine Greek (used from the fourth century B.C. to the fifth century A.D.). Carson agrees with Keener and with Catholics that there is no distinction in definition between petros and petra.


167 posted on 03/09/2015 3:53:21 PM PDT by G Larry (Our culture is caving to every whiney 3 year old in the room.)
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To: G Larry
>>Craig S. Keener, another Protestant scholar<<

Dude! Show me the Hebrew that is older than the Greek God preserved for us today. If you can't it's just like the Muslims claiming Jesus is just a prophet and the Mormons saying He was Satan's brother. Claims of deniers who refuse to follow what the Holy Spirit inspired to be written and preserved.

>>Carson agrees with Keener and with Catholics that there is no distinction in definition between petros and petra.<<

Yeah, that's why Strong, Thayer and all others prove there IS a difference. Different spelling should give some hint don't you think?

168 posted on 03/09/2015 4:12:25 PM PDT by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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