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To: CynicalBear

Again, from the source:

“Matthew, was originally written in Aramaic.
Both Sts. Papias and Irenaeus tell us as much in the second century.
Jesus would not have spoken his discourse of Matthew 16 in Greek.

Most of the common Jewish folk to whom Jesus spoke would not have been fluent in Greek. Aramaic was their spoken language.

Moreover, we have biblical evidence—
John 1:42— also points to Jesus using Aramaic in the naming of Peter: “[Andrew] brought [Peter] to Jesus. Jesus looked at him and said
‘So you are Simon the son of John?
You shall be called Cephas’” (which means Peter).

The name Cephas is an anglicized form of the Aramaic Kepha, which means simply “rock.”
There would have been no “small rock” to be found in Jesus’ original statement to Peter.

Even well-respected Protestant scholars will agree on this point.
Baptist scholar D. A. Carson, warites, in The Expositor’s Bible Commentary:

[T]he underlying Aramaic is in this case unquestionable; and most probably kepha was used in both clauses (”you are kepha” and “on this kepha”), since the word was used both for a name and for a “rock.” The Peshitta (written in Syriac, a language cognate with a dialect of Aramaic) makes no distinction between the words in the two clauses.”


165 posted on 03/09/2015 3:13:04 PM PDT by G Larry (Our culture is caving to every whiney 3 year old in the room.)
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To: G Larry
>>Papias and Irenaeus tell us as much in the second century. Jesus would not have spoken his discourse of Matthew 16 in Greek.<<

There is not proof that Papias said that and Irenaeus was simply repeating hearsay.

>>Most of the common Jewish folk to whom Jesus spoke would not have been fluent in Greek. Aramaic was their spoken language.<<

Koine Greek was the common language and had been for hundreds of years. Besides, once again your comment only proves it's "speculation".

>>There would have been no “small rock” to be found in Jesus’ original statement to Peter.<<

Except the Holy Spirit which Jesus said would "bring to your remembrance all that I have said" inspired it to be written in Greek. The Greek DOES make a distinction. I don't suppose you think the Holy Spirit made a mistake do you?

>>[T]he underlying Aramaic is in this case unquestionable; and most probably kepha was used in both clauses (”you are kepha” and “on this kepha”), since the word was used both for a name and for a “rock.”<<

But the Holy Spirit had it written in Greek and God chose to have it preserved in Greek and in Greek the distinction is made. I'll defer to the Holy Spirit and understand the difference in meaning was significant and for a reason.

166 posted on 03/09/2015 3:41:25 PM PDT by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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To: G Larry; CynicalBear
Again, from the source

Yup. The same incorrect source.

Hoss

170 posted on 03/09/2015 4:16:43 PM PDT by HossB86 (Christ, and Him alone.)
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