Doesn’t seem the right passage
Jesus gave his authority to baptize to the Apostles, who then laid hands on other men giving them this authority, who then laid hands.........in every generation for close to 2,000 years now.
Now to those following the 19th century tradition of men taught by Campbell that the Church went apostate and needed to be restored, this seems strange.
Yet, everyone baptized in the NT was baptized by a Christian. Why wasn’t Campbell?
Where is the requirement that one be baptized only by a Christian?