Perhaps you could ask one question at a time. And perhaps you would address mine in post 59.
And perhaps you would address mine in post 59.
Both have been done already.
Why must "church" refer to an invisible body, versus Godly people of God which are within the visible body progressively showing general consensus as to what and who is of God. Which the powers that be are to affirm, though it remains that what and who is of God are so regardless of magisterial rejection, as it can be wrong.
Or does being the instruments and stewards of Holy Writ mean they are the infallible judges of what and who is of God, and thus that they must be followed?