[ravenwolf]

Whatever anyone may think the words might have been had they been in another language is irrelevant.

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If Jesus spoke in Aramaic which most agree that he did and he used the word Cephas for peter then maybe something is missed here.

No argument about the name of Peter can be made on manuscripts that do not exist (Aramaic) because if they did they would have said it this way........>>>>>>>>>

Oh they don`t say it that way huh? Jesus calls Peter Cephas in John 1:42

Paul also refers to him as Cephas, point being they did say it that way.

[CynicalBear]

>>Oh they don`t say it that way huh? Jesus calls Peter Cephas in John 1:42<<

Yes he did and clarified which word in the Greek he meant also.

John 1:42 And he brought him to Jesus. And Jesus looking upon him, said: Thou art Simon the son of Jona: thou shalt be called Cephas, which is interpreted Peter (Petros.

He didn't say it meant petra.