To: CynicalBear
Interesting.
Do you happen to know what the literal translation is?
Even if it said "full of grace" I really don't get how there's a jump from that to Mary being sinless.
To: what's up
The Greek word there means "I favor" or "I bestow". The full word would mean "favored with grace". There is a Greek word for full which is πλήρης (plērēs). It is used to describe only Christ and Stephen. Of Stephen it says "Stephen moreover full (plērēs) of grace and power". That word is NEVER used for Mary.
64 posted on
01/24/2015 5:55:06 PM PST by
CynicalBear
(For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
To: what's up
The Greek word is “kecharitomene,” translated as “full of grace,” (although I admit that I am referencing catholic scholars, and do not know Greek, ancient or otherwise). I am interested to learn that Protestant thought on grace does not include the implication of freedom from original and personal sin.
65 posted on
01/24/2015 5:55:39 PM PST by
I-ambush
(Don't let it bring you down, it's only castles burning)
To: what's up; CynicalBear
Even if it said "full of grace" I really don't get how there's a jump from that to Mary being sinless. It can't be because if there's no sin, there's no need for grace.
Where sin abounds, grace much more abounds.
If there was no sin in Mary, she would not need grace, therefore couldn't be *full of grace*.
132 posted on
01/24/2015 8:21:09 PM PST by
metmom
(...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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