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To: LearsFool

Yeah I figured you might try something like that. It’s called human logic or wisdom. You must have forgotten that the Greek word we are discussing is a Preposition not a verb. There is no action taking place. The point in that verse is that the forgiveness already happened. Now if you want to continue believing that an action on man’s part somehow procures the remission of sin I don’t suppose anything is going to change your mind. In that case I suppose you can claim a right to forgiveness because you were baptised. I would remind you however of Paul’s words “Not of works, lest any man should boast”.


252 posted on 01/20/2015 1:50:23 PM PST by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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To: CynicalBear
Of course eis is a preposition. It tells us "where" the verb's action gets us, or points us to what the verb's action achieves, etc.

The casting of the tree gets the tree into the fire. The fleeing of Joseph and his family gets them into Egypt. The baptizing of the sinner gets him into the realm of "remission of sins".

It's interesting that you can see that's true with 2 out of 3, but the 3rd is for some reason simply unacceptable to you.

Well here's a 4th to consider:

"For this is my blood of the new testament, which is shed for many for the remission of sins." - Matt. 26:28

You say that baptism has nothing to do with the remission of sins. Well, does Jesus' blood have anything to do with remission of sins? The purpose of each is the same. The same thing that is said about Jesus' blood shed - the exact same Greek phrase* translated "for remission of sins" in Matt. 26:28 - is said about baptism in Acts 2:38.

Be baptized ---> for the remission of sins (Acts 2:38)
Blood shed ----> for the remission of sins (Matt. 26:28)


Now tell us, did Jesus shed His blood because everybody's sins had been forgiven already? You say that baptism "is a public testimony of salvation." Was the shedding of Jesus' blood "is a public testimony of salvation"??

Well it must be - according to you - because the Bible says the purpose of Jesus' bloodshed and the purpose of baptism are one and the same.

If we need Jesus' blood, we need baptism. But according to you, eis proves we don't.


* The Greek phrase in both is "eis aphesin hamartion".
253 posted on 01/20/2015 2:40:51 PM PST by LearsFool ("Thou shouldst not have been old, till thou hadst been wise.")
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