**You still at this ey? Did you simply ignore my post that showed you what the Greek word for “for” meant?**
I’ve given you a LOT to ignore it seems. You seem to be determined to prove that baptism performed by the apostles is sometimes water, but then sometimes it ain’t, portraying Paul as a flipflopper in the process.
I trust that the tranlators used ‘for’ because it is the best suitable word for the passage. What’s the opposite wording?....”To repent, and be baptized in the name of Jesus Christ is NOT FOR the remission of sins..”.
ey..I going to hit the hay.
No, you have given me a lot that you don't seem to rightly understand.
>>I trust that the tranlators used ‘for’ because it is the best suitable word for the passage.<<
Well, the same Greek word is used here. Matthew 3:10 And now also the axe is laid unto the root of the trees: therefore every tree which bringeth not forth good fruit is hewn down, and cast into the fire.
Did the fire exist before the tree was cast into the fire? Yes it did.
and here:
Matthew 2:13 And when they were departed, behold, the angel of the Lord appeareth to Joseph in a dream, saying, Arise, and take the young child and his mother, and flee into Egypt, and be thou there until I bring thee word: for Herod will seek the young child to destroy him.
Did Egypt exist before they took Jesus into Egypt? Yes it did.
That Greek word is used 1774 times in the New Testament and nearly every time is translated into. So being consistent let's see it here:
Acts 2:38 Then Peter said unto them, Repent, and be baptized every one of you in the name of Jesus Christ for into the remission of sins, and ye shall receive the gift of the Holy Ghost.
Did the remission of sins exist before we are baptised into it? Yes it did.
The word is a Preposition, NOT a verb. Surely you understand the difference.