It's rather simple really. The "Day of the Lord" is that period of time during the last seven years of Daniel's 490 year prophecy for Israel. John writes at the beginning of Revelation that he found himself "in the spirit in the Lord's day". Now you may think it says "on" the Lord's day but consider this. First of all the Greek word used for both of the instances where my quote says "in" is ἐν (en) and is used 2775 times in the New Testament. Nearly all of them are translated "in" and when not could be. Here is Strong's definition.
1722 en (a preposition) – properly, in (inside, within); (figuratively) "in the realm (sphere) of," as in the condition (state) in which something operates from the inside (within). [http://biblehub.com/greek/1722.htm]
We see that all of the events of Revelation happen within that time frame.
“We see that all of the events of Revelation happen within that time frame.”
Does this include the message to the seven churches? Does it also include the millennial reign?
Because John had the visions on the Lord’s day, that is supposed to conclusively prove that ALL of the events of these visions are part of the Day of the Lord? I’m sorry, but that argument carries no weight at all. This appears to be a case of trying to cite verses as proof texts and then forcing a meaning into them.
There are many passages describing the Day of the Lord. I do not see any that describe the seal judgments. I do see several indicators that the seal judgments lead up to and are prior to the arrival of the day of the Lord.
I have yet to hear a single solitary argument as to why the Day of the Lord cannot be the latter part of Daniel’s seventieth week, immediately following the Great Tribulation (which is cut short by the arrival of the Day of the Lord). The only counter arguments I have even heard are essentially saying this does not fit the pre-trib paradigm. Could you provide just one reason why this cannot be the case?