Why is it that the other two Gospel accounts of that teaching of Jesus do NOT contain any exception whatsoever?
When the Gospels contradict one another, why shouldn’t the majority win?
It doesn't need to...There are a lot of things written in Matthew that are not in the other Gospels...But to confirm it, Jesus put it into Mat. 5 as well...
When the Gospels contradict one another, why shouldn’t the majority win?
C'mon...There's no contradiction there...Not even in the least...