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To: Petrosius
If priest has two definitions: 1) presbuteros; and 2) hiereus why claim that the first is illegitimate? Why not claim that it is the second, derived, definition that is wrong and needs to be replaced?

Fine, the argument is the same, as since priest came to be the English word for hiereus and yet is used then it negates the distinction the Holy Spirit made by never giving the title hiereus to presbuteros. Priest should have been become the word for presbuteros. You have gained zero yardage on that desperate play, and are still in your own end zone on this and our other issues.

BTW, we are talking about common usage, not Bible translations. If you look at the Catholic New American Bible you will see that they use presbyter as the translation.

Commendably, but which translation is typically frowned upon or rejected by trad. RCs such as we debate here. It has been a long time, like never, that i saw the NAB recommended by a RC here. Can you find some?

127 posted on 12/19/2014 2:21:10 PM PST by daniel1212 (Come to the Lord Jesus as a contrite damned+destitute sinner, trust Him to save you, then live 4 Him)
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To: daniel1212
giving the title hiereus to presbuteros

No, what happened is that the title of presbuteros was given to heireus.

Part of the problem is the different experience that Catholics and Protestants have. Catholics have had a continual and daily experience with the presbyteral priesthood. When they hear the word "priest" the first thing they think of is the Catholic presbyteral priesthood. Protestants have been catechized to disassociate the Catholic presbyteral priesthood from the New Testament presbyterate. When they hear the word "priest" the first thing they think of is the sacerdotal priesthood. Thus when we see the headline of the article of this thread, "Where in the New Testament are 'priests' mentioned?", we see two different things. Catholics see the headline and see "Where in the New Testament are '[presbyteral] priests' mentioned?" Protestants see the same headline and see "Where in the New Testament are '[sacerdotal] priests' mentioned?"

Catholics are well aware of the distinction between their own priests and those of the Temple, even if English uses the same terms. Protestants, rejecting the Catholic priesthood as a continuation of the NT presbyterate, insists that the use of the one term implies an identification of the presbyterate with the Temple priesthood, something that Catholics never claim.

English is filled with words that have more than one meaning. One example is "man." Feminists insist that it only means males despite the standard usage that also recognizes it to mean a human being or human race. An intelligent person can distinguish its meanings from context. For good or ill English usage has given two meanings to "priest." Catholics are aware of the distinction. Protestants cannot insist that Catholics drop a usage that they have used for over thousand years. All that is needed is a reminder of the distinction.

128 posted on 12/19/2014 5:07:51 PM PST by Petrosius
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