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Please enjoy this more thorough explanation by Tim Staples http://www.catholic.com/magazine/articles/the-case-for-mary%E2%80%99s-perpetual-virginity

Here are a few highlights:

Scripture’s statement that Joseph “knew [Mary] not until she brought forth her firstborn” would not necessarily mean they did “know” each other after she brought forth Jesus. Until is often used in Scripture as part of an idiomatic expression similar to our own usage in English. I may say to you, “Until we meet again, God bless you.” Does that necessarily mean after we meet again, God curse you? By no means. A phrase like this is used to emphasize what is being described before the until is fulfilled. It is not intended to say anything about the future beyond that point. Here are some biblical examples:

2 Samuel 6:23: And Michal the daughter of Saul had no child to (until) the day of her death. (Does this mean she had children after she died?)
1 Timothy 4:13: Until I come, attend to the public reading of scripture, to preaching, to teaching. (Does this mean Timothy should stop teaching after Paul comes?)
1 Corinthians 15:25: For he (Christ) must reign until he has put all his enemies under his feet. (Does this mean Christ’s reign will end? By no means! Luke 1:33 says, “he will reign over the house of Jacob forever and of his kingdom there shall be no end.”)

You are twisting your logic into pretzels to change the meaning of a very clear and simple statement of Scripture.

Perhaps it just means what it says (in Greek, Latin, and English).:-)

I may say to you, “Until we meet again, God bless you.” Does that necessarily mean after we meet again, God curse you?

That is true and by the same token just because there is a first born does not mean there will be others.