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To: SpirituTuo; .45 Long Colt

So God could make Mary sinless but needed a sinless woman to give birth because He couldn’t make Jesus sinless?


333 posted on 12/15/2014 6:59:35 AM PST by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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To: CynicalBear

No. He gave Mary, who needed salvation, the singular grace of being preserved from original sin. Why? So she would be a pure vessel for the pure God-made-Man.

Jesus, by virtue of His divine nature was sinless. He didn’t need Mary or her consent. However, God chose to have His only Son come into the world, as man, born of woman.

As we read about the Annunciation in Luke 1:26-38, we see from the beginning, this is an unusual birth. God is to become man, born of woman. She is a virgin. We are also reminded that nothing is impossible with God.


347 posted on 12/15/2014 7:13:07 AM PST by SpirituTuo
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