[ealgeone]

I generally agree with your post. The purpose of St. Paul thickening the paint in Romans 3 is indeed to remind us that sin is sin, — at least if committed with full knowledge and willfully.

But the fact remains that “all have sinned” is in the context of “venom on the lips” and “feet quick to shed blood”, so unless you are prepared to advance the idea that Mary hastily murdered someone, you need to take the entire passage as a poetic exaggeration, including the “all” in it.

You continue to ignore 1 John 1:8-10.

Remember, keep everything in context in the Bible. Read the rest of Romans and you will see Paul advance the idea of all have sinned....including Mary.

I still find it interesting that in all of the NT, neither Paul, Peter, James, Jude, Luke, Matthew, Mark, John, or any of the other writers in the OT ever, ever included or alluded to, an exception regarding Mary.

This false teaching regarding Mary's "sinlessness" flies against all that Luke wrote about.

Why do catholics persist, when their own apologists admit, that there is no Biblical support for the immaculate concenption, in adhering to this false teaching?

I have asked you several times why, yet you will not or cannot answer. Amazing.

[annalex]

The focus in 1 John is on the new converts and the need for confession:

My little children, these things I write to you, that you may not sin (1 John 2:1)

Mary is not among the "we".

Willem Ignatius Kerricx
Confessionals
1713
Oak
O.-L. Vrouwekathedraal, Antwerp