And Romans 3:23? I am asking sincerely.
Yes, that is indeed a statement about actual sin. That I explained in 1282. Taken in isolation that single verse indeed would indicate that Mary somehow, -- we don't know how -- has sinned. But if you read the context you discover that first, it is a quote from one psalm, when the next psalm describes people without sin. so not all have sinned according to King David, whom S.t Paul cites. Second, the entire passage cannot be applied to "all". Mary surely was interested in God, did not hurry to murder anyone, destroy anything, etc., -- nor nearly everyone I know. It should be clear that the passage in Romans 3 is an exaggerated statement in order to make a stronger point about redemption wrought by Jesus.