And the context of the passage tells us what? What was the historical, literal approach to the passage.
Also if literally eating the flesh and blood of Christ was indeed the manner of obtaining Grace and thereby salvation, then why not in every epistle is this not commanded literally and exhorted?
Finally, in verse 26 Paul calls what the Corinthians are sharing “bread” and “cup”.
At what point did Paul instruct the proper handling of the unused left over bread and cup? Would not that be a most important piece of information given by your context the Corinthians were not performing communion correctly? But as Paul points out the subject is actually the Corinthians were not properly waiting for all to arrive to the Lord’s Supper, some were hungry and some were drunk?
You have been told the truth as plainly as I can. The rest is up to the Holy Spirit.