Show me scripture that says Mary wasn’t a sinner!
The Bible doesn’t say “For all have sinned (except momma Mary) and fall short of the Glory of God” Romans 3:23 (the presumptive Catholic version.
It does say “For all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God!” Romans 3 :23 KJV (or just about any other version including Douay Reims) That includes Mary.
The biggest mistake I think people make about Mary is that they think Mary have been must be sinless or else somehow her sinfulness would rub off on Christ as he was in her womb waiting to be delivered. Christ himself put the lie to notions such as that when he said...”It is not what goes into a man but what comes out of him that corrupts him”. Mary was a sinner but she was a virgin who submitted in faith to God’s will. Her faith saved her as did the Christ that was birthed from her womb. In her salutation to Elizabeth...she refers to “the Lord my savior”. If she wasn’t a sinner, then what has God saved from, but from her sins.
bump
A lot of old testament prophets fell into disfavor with God after they had done their part in HIS plan.
Mary was saved by Jesus. She was preserved from Original Sin from the moment of her conception. She did not need to be a sinner in order to need a savior. Her sinlessness does not imply that she needed no savior. The opposite is true.
The Fathers of the Church teach that Mary’s sinlessness is evidenced in the fact that her body obeyed her will in conceiving the Son of God in her womb. She heard the word of God from the angel, and consented to conceive the Word in her womb. Being the New Eve, without sin, she enjoyed a freedom and a mind-body integrity lacking in those weakened by Original Sin.
There is no reason to suppose that, in his preaching about what corrupts a man (what comes from outside vs. what comes from within), Jesus intended to settle any question concerning the sinlessness of Mary. To exploit the words of Jesus in that way is to twist and misuse Scripture—in a manner that is all too common.
When St. Paul says that “all have sinned” he is referring to all who need to repent of sins. Why would he bother to carve out an exception for Mary if he was not discussing Mary and not addressing Mary?
Is there any evidence that Paul foresaw that this particular verse would be exploited 1500 years later to “prove” that Mary was a sinner?
What basis is there for holding that each individual verse of Scripture may be used to prove points that its author was not discussing, and can be leitimately used to prove points, without reference to its context, without reference to its author’s immediate purpose, and without reference to its audience?