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To: Rad_J
The bible says in Genesis 16 3 And Sarai Abram’s wife took Hagar her maid the Egyptian, after Abram had dwelt ten years in the land of Canaan, and gave her to her husband Abram to be his wife.

Again, who gives a woman authority to bestow a man with an extra wife? Show me ONCE in Scripture where God issues that kind of authority?

(And especially...as in THIS case -- and Jacob's case -- where a slave-woman has no rights to say "no" to her mistress when she tells the slave-woman to go sleep with her hubby). Gen. 16:5 clearly shows Sarah wasn't trusting God with the promise to bear a child by saying "I put my slave in your arms... (not God; and not Abram)

Show me where in Genesis 16 that Abram references her as his wife? You would think that if Abram thought of Hagar as his wife per verse 3, that he wouldn't be referencing Hagar in v. 6 as "your slave" when talking with Sarai.

And then what about the angel of the Lord? Why in v. 8 is He still referencing Hagar as "slave" if she's graduating to wifehood? (You're not accusing the Angel of the Lord of either being mistaken about a former title of a person, are you?)

And in verse 9, the Angel of the Lord tells Hagar to "go back to your mistress." He doesn't say "go back to your husband now does He?

Then what about God, Himself? How does He reference Hagar in Gen. 21:12? Does He call Hagar Abraham's wife? Nope. You're off-base yet again (your norm track record). God references Hagar as "slave woman" in that verse? (Interesting title for a woman everybody is suppose to know is Abraham's "wife" eh?)

Or now do you accuse God before the world of being in the dark about Hagar's true status?

If so, you need to openly repent before the world and before God, lest your silence on this matter brings ultimate divine accountability for such an accusation!!!

Finally, the apostle Paul could have referenced Hagar as Abraham's so-called "wife" well after the fact in Galatians 4. Instead, what do we find? Paul in three consecutive verses (22, 23, 24) labels her as a "slave woman"...

According to the prophet Moses, the prophet Abraham was a polygamist even if just for one night

(David eventually married Bathsheba. But that still didn't make Bathsheba David's wife the first night she slept with him...she was still the wife of Uriah the first night she slept with him...

So...you're conveying that if somebody sleeps with somebody else minus divine authority or if some person minus authority deems it some kind of "wifehood" (I suppose you might "amen" fundamentalist Mormons declaring their women as part of various 'wifehood' clans as being divinely authorized, eh?) then "wifehood" it is, eh?

Well, that would make Bathsheba your first Biblically sanctioned polyandrist, eh? (Per you, married to both Uriah and David at the same time?)

100% ridiculous.

Your ignorance slip isn't only showin', but embarrasingly so!

68 posted on 11/17/2014 8:08:36 PM PST by Colofornian
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To: Colofornian

Genesis 16:3 So after Abram had been living in Canaan ten years, Sarai his wife took her Egyptian slave Hagar and gave her to her husband to be his wife. 4 He slept with Hagar, and she conceived.

Moses uses the word wife and wrote it as scripture that Hagar was a wife. Moses is saying what Sarai did. Moses is calling Hagar a wife as he is no quoting Sarai. Obviously Hagar did not remain as a wife.

Sarai is not Abraham’s master. Sarai did not make Abraham take Sarai as a slave or sex partner. Abraham agreed to the idea. He did not have to submit to her will. He accepted Hagar as a wife and slept with her.

You can argue against Moses using the word wife all you want. Take it up with him. But according to this verse, Abraham had two wives at the same time. Having more than one wife at the same time is known as polygamy.

I have said very little about David. Only that he was a polygamist. You are making stuff up that i didnt say or insinuate. It is so obvious that he was a polygamist before ever meeting Bathsheba. You listed his wives and then say Bathsheba is the first polyandist in the Bible? Are you mental? Do you even bother to read the bible?

It is a fact that Abraham had two wives at the same time.
It is a fact that Moses had two wives. There is no evidence that it was not at the same time but there is evidence that it was at the same time.
It is a fact that Jacob was married to more than two women at the same time and the first two were sisters.
It is a fact that David was married to more than one wife at the same time.
It is a fact that Solomon was married to multiple women at the same time.

It is a fact that Abraham, Jacob and Moses were God’s chosen prophets.
It is a fact that God chose David and Solomon to be kings of Israel.

If you disagree that these men were polygamists then what’s the point of discussing if God was ok with it or not if you don’t even believe that these men were polygamists meaning they had more than one wife at the same time.

My beliefs and my religion(mormon) have no bearing on the above facts I have listed. Neither do yours. I believe the Bible is the word of God. I assumed that you believe the Bible is the word of God.

Please do not assume to know my beliefs based on my being a Mormon. If you respectfully ask me my beliefs I might tell you what I believe. But, lets stick to the subject at hand which is whether or not Polygamy was practiced in the Bible because if we can’t agree on that , then there is no point in discussing anything else with you related to the topic of polygamy.


73 posted on 11/18/2014 8:24:03 AM PST by Rad_J
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