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To: ravenwolf
The third option would be if a man lost his wife through death and remarried and I don`t see how that would disqualify him.

Keep in mind there was a provision for divorcing a wife that a man had married when he was a pagan if she left him when he converted. (Actually, that option still exists.) Paul may have intended to exclude such men.

There is also considerable evidence that the ancients were not impressed with a man who was widowed and remarried in mature years. It was viewed as a sign of not being able to control one's appetites.

The "husband of one wife" clause had nothing to do with polygamy, which was equally unknown among Greco-Roman pagans, Jews, and Christians in Paul's day.

75 posted on 11/06/2014 4:24:10 PM PST by Campion
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To: Campion

The “husband of one wife” clause had nothing to do with polygamy, which was equally unknown among Greco-Roman pagans, Jews, and Christians in Paul’s day.


You may be right, but it is not mention in scripture, other wise this conversation would not be happening, so secular history is where it would be coming from.

Have the historians even found Christ`s name any place?
I don`t know but seems to me they have a big problem of even getting him in history, or for that matter even the early Church.


78 posted on 11/06/2014 9:14:07 PM PST by ravenwolf (` know if an other temple will be built or not but the)
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