i’m going to go thru this quickly one more time. If i make a minor goof, my apologies, i am no pharisee, lol.
the title of the thread contains polygamy. i was addressing polygamy. i did not bring up adultery at all. you are claiming this topic is not about polygamy but actually about adultery seems a lot like changing the topic. I responded to the definition of adultery posted. Adultery and polygamy are two different concepts. That is why there are two different terms for the different concepts. You can discuss adultery all you like but it probably belongs on a thread about adultery, not a thread about polygamy. (Hint hint.)
As for Christ’s logic, ppl sometimes are simply inferring things that are not written. Logically, putting two together does not in any way preclude putting more than two together. What some ppl seem to be reading is an exclusiveness to the operation. But Christ never said exclusive.
Read it. Search for “exclusive.” It is not there. So it is not exclusive. If ppl want to interpret it that way, ppl need to find “two and only two” or “two exclusively.” Ppl can’t simply claim that someone meant two and only two when he did not say two and only two, and in any case was not addressing the union but the original question which was divorce (not polygamy). The answer therefore is addressed to the question of divorce. Jesus did not say Oh by the way, about polygamy, or having multiple wives— that is wrong. If he did, then your argument would make sense. But he did not. You’re not supposed to read into the bible what is not there (not that I imagine that would ever stop you but whatever). Any referral to Adam and Eve is negated by OT tolerance of polygamy— therefore Adam and Eve and references to Adam and Eve are not or at least should not be condemnations of polygamy in the NT. To make things clear, Jesus could have said look at Solomon— that guy married several wives and that is (now) a sin. But nowhere did he say that. Logically, referring to a single 1:1 relationship as valid does not preclude many:1 relationships from being also valid. Logic does not work that way. Do I think Christ’s logic is incorrect? No, but you have not established that your interpretation of Christ’s logic is correct in the first place, and I think I have fairly annihilated your interpretation (ahem). In order for you to succeed with your argument, you must demonstrate that your interpretation of Christ’s teaching on divorce extends to polygamy and you have not done so, so there is no Christ teaching on polygamy for me (or anyone else) to concur or refute.
In logic, you cannot afford to word an argument poorly, because it is like sailing off with a leaking ship. Your argument will sink. A sloppy choice of words often reflects sloppy thinking.
It means that saying that polygamy was not condemned proves nothing, since neither was divorce.
No, it does not, since polygamy is described in many places in the OT, but never condemned in the OT (or the NT for that matter). (See? sloppy thinking.) But taking the OT as a self contained system of morality which it was, most people would find it extremely odd that polygamy is in fact wrong if it was never described as wrong in a self contained system such as the OT. Extend that to the NT, and the lack of condemnation of polygamy is fairly conclusive when compared to condemnation of (say) murder or coveting a neighbor’s house or wife.
No one reads the OT to preclude having two or more houses— just as long as you did not steal any house from someone else (because stealing is a sin). Likewise adultery, stealing someone else’s wife, is not a sin, but having two or more wives is OK as long as no wife is first married to someone else who is not deceased (etc).
Likewise adultery, stealing someone else’s wife, is not a sin ... -> Likewise adultery, stealing someone else’s wife, is a sin ...
Here is my argument:
1)Polygamy is ruled out effectively because Christ calls marriage with another "adultery," since the original marriage is not actually severed. Adultery is the act of having sex with someone elses spouse. IOW, the second marriage is not recognized by God.
2)Polygamy is marriage to two or more people.
3)Therefore, marriage to two or more people is adultery.
You’re not supposed to read into the bible what is not there (not that I imagine that would ever stop you but whatever).
Well, there are lots of things we know are wrong that are not spelled out exactly in the Bible. We know child molestation is wrong, but it is not discussed in scripture. We know that inside trading is wrong, because we know that deception is also wrong. In the same way, we know that polygamy is wrong, because we know that marrying another woman after "putting away" your wife is called "adultery."