“...officially accepted by the Roman Catholic Church in 1546 as being inspired.”
This is such a common blunder. That’s how we get proclamations that the Pope invented the dogma of the Immaculate Conception in 1854, or the dogma of the Assumption in 1950. Or that the Church invented “transubstantiation” in the 16th Century. Etc.
It makes about as much sense as finding a copy of the Catechism of the Catholic Church printed in 1992, and proclaiming that all the teachings in it were invented by the Catholic Church in 1992.
If the doctrines contained therein were not in evidence prior to 1992, then that would be a reasonable statement. There was dispute regarding the Biblical canon right up to the Council of Trent in the 16th century. Under dispute was the so-called Deuterocanon or Apocrypha. The Reformation rejected them as being inspired scripture and therefore part of the canon, however the Apocrypha continued to be included as good for edification but not for doctrine. That language is historic, going back to very early Christianity. It paraphrases whom?
Did he not declare them "dogma" and that made them official teaching of the catholic church?? It was either dogma before or it wasn't.
If it was dogma why did he have to proclaim it as such?