Discuss/explain
It can only be correct as meaning the canon is not infallible under the premise of a church possessing assured infallibility decreeing it so, being impossible for it to err. But if it a canon is a collection only of infallible books then it is an infallible canon, as even a pagan can state an infallible truth. (Acts 17:28)
Yet it would be another level for a canon to be held as being infallible as containing all the inspired writings that ever were or could be, which is actually a matter of RC debate.