-— Why did the Church turn away from the teachings of Jesus’ first Apostles and forbid Priests and Bishops the freedom to marry? -—
Paul commends celibacy, and Jesus commends celibacy for those who are called to it. Since the Church has the power to bind and loose, She has the authority to determine the criteria for priesthood. No one is forced to be a priest, so no one is forced not to marry. Regardless, there are some married priests in all Rites. Priestly celibacy is a discipline, not a dogma.
Paul commends celibacy, and Jesus commends celibacy for those who are called to it. Since the Church has the power to bind and loose, She has the authority to determine the criteria for priesthood
Paul “commended” it but said a man should have a wife and a woman should have a husband.
Jesus said woman is the reason a man leaves his parents and the two become one flesh.
Catholics mandated celibate, single priests even though the Epistles describe proper attitudes for the wives of Bishops.
One of us is accurate. The other is repeating talking points.
What part of the Bible did “prots” ignore? What parts are ignored by Catholics?
Not if it directly disobeyed the criteria Paul set down for chruch leadership.
commends, not COMMANDS.
There's a world of difference between the Catholic church allowing some married men to become priests and allowing priests to get married.
Since the Church has the power to bind and loose,
Taken out of context to give the church blanket authority to make rules they want and enforce them.
That verse is in no way talking about that kind of authority. It's talking about disputes between believers.
No one is forced to be a priest, so no one is forced not to marry.
That's not true because priests are forced to not marry. Show me a priest who the Catholic church allowed to marry who wasn't already married when he converted to Catholicism.