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To: SampleMan; CynicalBear
Certainly open to interpretation. One such would be that the Old Covenant was over, and the teachings of Moses and Elijah ignored, henceforth. That would be a more logical explanation than yours than yours, although I don't think either one totally defines the episode.

I have to disagree with that. Jesus said that until heaven and earth pass away, not the least letter of the Law will pass away.

God's law defines who He is and points to Christ.

Sin is still sin. How it's dealt with has changed and since the perfect sacrifice of Jesus, who the law was foreshadowing, has come, there is no reason for the sacrifices that foreshadowed Him to continue because the blood of bulls and goats could not take away sin.

So we are no longer obligated to live under the old covenant in that regard, but the moral laws have not changed and are not optional. They cannot be ignored.

604 posted on 10/06/2014 5:35:43 AM PDT by metmom (...fixing our eyes on Jesus, the Author and Perfecter of our faith...)
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To: metmom
I have to disagree with that. Jesus said that until heaven and earth pass away, not the least letter of the Law will pass away.

As Jesus was not predisposed to stone sinners, and had shown a willingness to bend the law on the Sabbath, I would have to conclude that there were conflicts between Jewish law, and God's Law, and He was referrencing God's Law. Look at His answer concerning divorce, when He flat out stated that the law as laid down by Moses was wrong.

So we are no longer obligated to live under the old covenant in that regard, but the moral laws have not changed and are not optional. They cannot be ignored.

I fully agree. The trick is to devine the difference between God's Law and what I see as old Jewish tribal custom/law. Thus, when there is a conflict, I look to the New Testament first.

610 posted on 10/06/2014 7:32:57 AM PDT by SampleMan (Feral Humans are the refuse of socialism.)
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