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To: CynicalBear

No he referred to his writings as writings, that is what the Greek word scripture means. It was only after the Catholic Church ordered the canon that scripture came to mean the Bible. Common mistake among non/anti-Catholics and the illiterate.


236 posted on 10/04/2014 7:53:20 PM PDT by verga (Conservative, leaning libertarian)
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To: verga
>>No he referred to his writings as writings, that is what the Greek word scripture means.<<

Please show where the Greek word graphé is used in scripture to refer to anything other than the Holy Scriptures.

>>It was only after the Catholic Church ordered the canon that scripture came to mean the Bible.<<

And of course that was a word never before used and should fully be credited to the Catholic Church right?

Luke 4:17 and there was given over to him a roll (biblion) of Isaiah the prophet, and having unfolded the roll (biblion), he found the place where it hath been written:

Common mistake among Catholics and the illiterate.

294 posted on 10/05/2014 6:08:48 AM PDT by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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