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To: boatbums; BlueDragon
Prior to their rejection of Christ the Jews read the Septuagint, that is, the Deuterocanon as well as the Hebrew canon. For example, St. Paul writes:

because from thy infancy thou hast known the holy scriptures, which can instruct thee to salvation, by the faith which is in Christ Jesus. All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice, That the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work. (2 Timothy 3:15-17)

Observe: the Old Testament "can instruct thee to salvation" so long as it is seen through the eye of faith in Christ. How an adherent of Judaism reads the Holy Scripture and what part of it he likes or dislikes is useless information. Observe also: "all scripture" known to Timothy since his youth. Timothy was a native of Lystra and his father was Greek, a strong indication that his exposure to scripture was through Septuagint and therefore "all" in St. Paul's writing is a reference to the complete Catholic Canon, not to the Protestant redaction.

So that is the relevant part of the Jewish religion: one that lead to the conversion of Paul, Timothy and his parents, and very many others.

What the unconverted Jews did AFTER the rejection and murder of Christ is irrelevant completely; in fact if they did something after Christianity emerged as one true religion, we should probably do the opposite.

152 posted on 10/04/2014 5:00:43 PM PDT by annalex (fear them not)
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To: annalex; boatbums; BlueDragon

>> “ Timothy was a native of Lystra and his father was Greek, a strong indication that his exposure to scripture was through Septuagint and therefore “all” in St. Paul’s writing is a reference to the complete Catholic Canon, not to the Protestant redaction.” <<

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What a bizarre assertion!

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First, Timothy’s mother was a devout Jew, and children’s education was strictly the mother’s job in a Jewish family of that time. Read what Paul said of his mother, little is even known of his father.

Paul taught nothing from the Septuagint, he had little knowledge of the Greek language, but he was one of the world’s greatest experts in the Hebrew scriptures, which he had studied since he was a toddler. The same is in all likelihood true for Timothy.

There was no “Canon” in their time but the Tanakh, and the ‘catholic’ anything was 300 years in the future.

The very idea of a NT ‘canon’ is without scriptural basis. The gospel of Matthew, and the various letters of the apostles were copied in a purely random way by whoever wished to have a copy of a letter. Codification of them came long after the apostles were all dead, and Jerusalem long demolished.

The term “scripture” to the apostles meant the Tanakh, in Hebrew, which is how it was available in synagogues across the Mediterranean, (see acts 15:21) including Lystra, and that was instruction in Righteousness, not ‘justice.’

The Septuagint was prepared for a small contingent of Greek speaking Jews in Alexandria, not for Greeks, and Greeks for the most part considered it unreadable.
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189 posted on 10/04/2014 5:55:34 PM PDT by editor-surveyor (Freepers: Not as smart as I'd hoped they'd be)
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To: annalex

Nope. As Josephus pointed out --- they did not accept the so-called deuterocanon, including the Maccabean works, and likely set the writings of Ben Sirach aside as something akin to early Targum -- not to be confused with Holy Writ itself.

Try A survey of the Old Testament in this review, pages 490, 492-494.

As found some synopsis of here http://www.coptic.net/articles/thestoryofthebible.txt the Jamnia idea, as to claims the Jews "ripped out" parts of THEIR OWN "bible" as it were simply because of Jesus and his followers;;

When the destruction of the Jerusalem and the Temple was imminent, a great rabbi belonging to the school of Hillel in the Pharisaic party--Yochanan ben Zakkai by name--obtained permission from the Romans to reconstitute the Sanhedrin on a purely spiritual basis at Jabneh (Jamnia), between Joppa and Azotus (Ashod). Some of the discussions which went on at Jamnia were handed down by oral transmission and ultimately recorded in the rabbinical writings. Their debates focussed on whether canonical recognition should be accorded to some books (Proverbs, Ecclesiastes, the Song of Songs and Esther). The upshot of the Jamnia debates was the firm acknowledgement of all these books as Holy Scripture
with the footnote there leading to F.F. Bruce, as noted in "The Books and The Parchments", Rev. ed. Westwood: Fleming H. Revell Co., 1963.

The so-called deuterocanon wasn't even discussed there(!), as best can be pieced together. It was a non-issue. Coming so close to what Josephus had publicly outlined as to what Hebrew holy writ was to the Greco-Roman world in his own effort to explain the Hebrews to the rest of the world, it is simply impossible that the Hebrews would do such a thing.

Melito -- surviving through Eusebius found the Hebrews did not regard what would centuries later be called deuterocanon as part of their own Holy Writ -- drawing a line from Josephus (A.D. 70) to himself (A.D. 180 or thereabouts).

As daniel1212 made mention of -- Philo, writing just previous to time of Christ

Mere assertions won't cut it, not in the face of the abundant evidence to the contrary -- some of which I just touched upon in the note to which you here gave reply, and in the notes of many others on this thread who again and again cite factual evidences to the contrary of your own suppositions, assumptions and opinions (as to alleged contents of Septuagint having been considered canonical to the Jews).

Which Septuagint version would be the "right" one? As I pointed out to another here already also -- the oldest pair of extant Greek Septuagint do NOT agree as to their contents -- and those two are from the late second century (or thereabouts).

In the lower potions of this #121 there is much well enough documented info that has a bearing upon the discussion here, in how it once again has turned to OT canon issues, with those as afar as I can tell be attempted to be used as some sort of sick leverage against those pesky "Protestants" -- whom you more or less condemn (possibly to hell?).

I'm not sure why all this goes on, other than it appearing to me a bunch of bluffing to try and hold onto the Romanist apologetics which are used in some quarters to 'bash' Protestant views in general -- thus giving succor and reassurance to [Roman] Catholics.

Well guess what?

It is BACKFIRING on you, big-time. At least for those who dig into the history of these sort of things and understand what they read -- and do not simply apply a "the Church is inerrant" type of thinking at each juncture where the going may get rough.

240 posted on 10/04/2014 7:56:28 PM PDT by BlueDragon (...they murdered some of them bums...for thinking wrong thoughts)
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