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To: CynicalBear

“That’s multiple days.”

Yes, but what days are being referred to? It says the “immediately after the tribulation of those days”, so days refers to the tribulation, not the day of wrath, or day of the Lord as it is referred to in other prophecies.

In fact, the verse you cite is the best proof that the day of wrath cannot possibly occur during the tribulation. The same events described in that verse (darkening of the sun and moon, stars falling from heaven, and the heavens being disturbed) match the events described in Rev 6:12-17 that you used as your reference for the “day of wrath”, and this verse in Matthew clearly places these events after the tribulation!

“The Greek has past or present tense “has come”. It is not a future anticipated event.”

Well, I will take your word for that. If it’s true, then Rev 6 must be describing events after the tribulation, or it would be in conflict with Matthew 24.


141 posted on 09/30/2014 7:14:21 PM PDT by Boogieman
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To: Boogieman
>>The same events described in that verse (darkening of the sun and moon, stars falling from heaven, and the heavens being disturbed)<<

You need to read this passages side by side. Revelation 6 the moon is turned red not darkened. The mountains and the islands are moved not the powers of the heavens shaken. They are two distinctly different events

142 posted on 09/30/2014 7:35:43 PM PDT by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus)
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