It is very clear that John refers to Mary the Mother of Jesus.
I pray that the Holy Spirit will enlighten you so that you may accept the Assumption of Mary into Heaven.
Mary is referred to prophetically as “woman” in Gen. 3:15, Jer. 31:22, and by Jesus as the same in John 2:4 and 19:26. Especially considering the same apostle, John, wrote the Gospel of John and the book of Revelation, it is no stretch to say St. John would have had Mary in mind when he used the familiar term “the woman” as the descriptor of the Lady of the Apocalypse.
4. There are four main characters in the chapter: “the woman,” the devil, Jesus, and the Archangel Michael. No one denies that the other three mentioned are real persons. It fits the context exegetically to interpret “the woman” as a person (Mary) as well.
Why do you feel so righteous in your interpretation? Is there a specific teaching by your religion to back up your opinion?
THE HAIL MARY
Hail Mary, full of grace, the Lord is with thee, blessed art thou amongst women and blessed is the fruit of thy womb, Jesus. Holy Mary Mother of God, pray for us sinners now and at the hour of our death. Amen.
There is that conjecture thing again. John was being told what to write. It has nothing to do with what he "had in mind". The woman in Revelation is the nation of Isreal.
>>It fits the context exegetically to interpret “the woman” as a person (Mary) as well.<≤
So Mary is going to return to earth in an earthly body and " flee into the mountains"?