Ok, you go read the wikipedia article too.
I don't think it means everything that you think it says.
Specifically "The Council of Elvira (306) is often seen as the first to issue a written regulation requiring clergy to abstain from sexual intercourse. Its canon 33 decreed: "Bishops, presbyters, deacons, and others with a position in the ministry are to abstain completely from sexual intercourse with their wives and from the procreation of children. If anyone disobeys, he shall be removed from the clerical office."[36]"
and earlier in the article is this:
"One interpretation of "the husband of one wife" is that the man to be ordained could not have been married more than once and that perfect continence, total abstinence, was expected from him starting on the day of his ordination.[18][19][20][21]"
Here is my take on the Wikipedia article under the heading of clerical celibacy:
“The tenth century is claimed to be the high point of clerical marriage in the Latin communion (Catholic Church). Most rural priests were married and many urban clergy and bishops had wives and children.”
Then, in the Sixteenth Century:
“The Reformers made the abolition of clerical continence and celibacy a key element of their reform. The denounced it as opposed to the New Testament recommendation that a cleric should be the husband of one wife (1 Timothy 3:2).”
As to why the policy was implemented:
“...a large number of the clergy, not only priests but bishops, openly took wives and begot children to whom they transmitted their benefices”
Clearly the Church’s policy of mandatory clerical celibacy conflicts with the New and Old Testaments which permitted priests and bishops to be married. And clearly the policy of clerical celibacy was not institutionalized until much later in Church history.