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Your failure to understand what Yeshua’s earthly ministry was all about has left you in a daze.

The general purpose of his ministry was to restore the original Torah to his people. Torah is the law of the Kingdom of Yehova until “All things are accomplished.” They were living under a false “Law” created by the pharisees, and that law was what Paul was deriding in Romans 3.

Jeremiah was declaring a time when all of Yehova’s people would live with Torah “written on the fleshly tables of their hearts.”

When you post short portions of a chapter, torn from the context of the chapter, the meaning is destroyed. This is especially true for Paul’s epistles. They didn’t survive the translation from the Hebrew to the Greek in an easy to read condition. The Greek makes no distinction between Yehova’s Torah, and the Pharisee’s Takanot and Ma’asim that is absolutely necessary for understanding what is being said. It also conflates “Jews” with all other Hebrews.

What could possibly be misunderstood about Romans 2:13? It is almost word for word what James also wrote in his epistle. It is the very anchor of every epistle in the New Testament. Without accepting that clear statement, you cannot understand any other epistle.

The “works of the law” has absolutely nothing to do with Torah.

They were living under a false “Law” created by the pharisees, and that law was what Paul was deriding in Romans 3.

How do we know Paul was addressing man-made Jewish law? Does he say something to indicate that?

Jeremiah was declaring a time when all of Yehova’s people would live with Torah “written on the fleshly tables of their hearts.”

I believe you're mistaken. We know what the "new covenant" is which Jeremiah prophesied. God tells us what it is in Hebrews 8. I'd quote it, but that might be "posting short portions of a chapter, torn from the context of the chapter, and destroy the meaning." ;-)

By the way, you're welcome to read the entire chapter and book when I cite a verse. I'd encourage you to do so. And I'd also encourage you to cite any part of the context you believe corrects my misunderstanding or misrepresentation of the Scriptures.

My intent is not to "cherry-pick" verses which support my belief, but merely to cite the Scriptures which apply to the question at hand. And I believe that to be your intent as well.

With that in mind, let me expand the earlier citation from Romans 3.

19 Now we know that what things soever the law saith, it speaketh to them that are under the law; that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may be brought under the judgment of God:

20 because by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified in his sight; for through the law cometh the knowledge of sin.

21 But now apart from the law a righteousness of God hath been manifested, being witnessed by the law and the prophets;

22 even the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ unto all them that believe; for there is no distinction;

I won't post all of Romans 1-4, but Paul makes the case again and again that the only way a man can be judged righteous UNDER LAW - whether the Law of Moses or any other law - is to be guiltless. Abraham was counted righteous not because he was guiltless, but because he believed God. (Rom. 4:3, 22) He sought a righteousness that is available not through law, but through faith.

Likewise we are to seek a righteousness that comes from faith (1:16-17, 4:24) and not from works of law (4:4-5)

Now it's obvious Paul is using "works" here to refer to something different from what James means. When Paul says "works", he means works which will EARN justification: perfect obedience, in other words; works which merit a "not guilty" verdict from the Judge. That's not at all what James means when he uses the word.

Sorry for the length of this reply, so I'll stop there.