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To: annalex; BlueDragon; Salvation
In 211 it is clear that Salvation is speaking of the Vulgate as the original to Douay, which renders Luke 1:28 correctly;

No, that is not clear or correct. Indeed it helps if you are going to post opinions to acquaint yourself with the nature of the controversy and the text of the relevant posts before opining. And the issue was what the correct rendering is, and her reference to the "original Latin" being "the original English translation" (though that was actually the Wycliff Bible from the Vulgate), infers that this "original Latin" was the "original language" that Lk. 1:28 was written in.

As the issue was what Lk. 1:28 really says, then referring to "original Latin" is misleading, unless she made it clear that she considers this superior to or definitive of the Greek, which she did not.

And what the Greek says is that both Mary as well as all believers (Lk. 1:28; Eph. 1:6) are "graced," (kecharitōmenē from the Greek word charitoō) being used to describe both, and all generations are to call Mary blessed among [en] women .

But the only one (though in some mss Stephen, in Acts 6:8) said to be full of grace is the Lord Jesus, "full ("plērēs) of grace (charis) and truth," using "plērēs," which denotes "full" 17 other places in the NT.

Where does the [Roman] Catholic church teach that Gregory "wrote as the Holy Spirit dictated to him"?

Nowhere: I was pointing out the detail of the image I posted.

More than that. You were objecting to my statement that the Holy Spirit did not inspire the writers of Scripture to write in Latin, as stating that "nothing else the prelates and doctors of the Holy Church wrote is inspired," or that "specifically what they wrote in Latin is not inspired." Which "opinions of yours" you said were not the faith of the Church.

Thus it is evident these opinions were what you were objecting to, and you followed with, "Gregory the Great writing as the Holy Spirit dictates to him."

It is obvious the latter is in response to my opinions you objected to, as being contrary to prelates and doctors of the Holy Church being inspired of God, by which is meant being inspired so that the Holy Spirit dictates to him, unless you post irrelevant pictures. And as the context of my remark was obviously Divine inspiration of Scripture, then it infers you are supporting Gregory as one (among others) that wrote under Divine inspiration as with the writers of Scripture.

So back to questions. Do you hold that such men as Gregory (among others wrote under Divine inspiration as with the writers of Scripture?

Do you hold that Popes in speaking infallibly also do so, or that God is otherwise the author of these infallible statements, so that it is a Divine document as Scripture is?

That is the difference between Protestants posting their thoughts and ideas, typically quite heretical and without authority other than inside their own heads.

Actually, RCs example how adept they are at variously interpreting Rome among themselves, as it appears you are, lacking an infallible interpreter for their infallible interpreter.

Try to respond with clarity, and without obfuscation and your usual recourse to insults.

424 posted on 04/07/2014 9:11:38 PM PDT by daniel1212 (Come to the Lord Jesus as a contrite damned+destitute sinner, trust Him to save you, then live 4 Him)
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To: daniel1212; BlueDragon; Salvation
that is not clear

So read the relevant posts by Salvation again and observe the use of "original" in her post applied not only to Latin but also to English.

Wycliffe's is a garbage translation.

No one is called in the New Testament "κεχαριτωμενη" nor "κεχαριτωμενος". St. Stephen is "πληρης πιστεως". Jesus is "πληρης χαριτος". Difference in the original calls for difference in translations.

you are supporting Gregory as one (among others) that wrote under Divine inspiration as with the writers of Scripture.

Yes, however his texts are not canonical scripture.

Do you hold that Popes in speaking infallibly also do so [when inspired by the Holy Ghost?]

When a pope is speaking on faith and morals from the authority of the Petrine office, yes. When he chats with the reporters, for example, no. You did not know that?

variously interpreting Rome among themselves

Yes. Happens. But we know where the authority is and the Church being of living people we can ask for a definitive teaching. That is unlike Protestant charlatanism and "the Spirit tells me". If that insults you, change religion.

446 posted on 04/08/2014 5:31:01 AM PDT by annalex (fear them not)
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