I'm not sure why you pinged me to this, since my post was to your apparent universalism, not to anything to do with the alleged Holy Ghost inspired translation of Jerome's work (did Jerome even claim to be translating under a mystical power?). I'd be careful making such stupid claims though, since Jerome condemned and rejected the apocrypha, which your church currently accepts.
By the way, I wasn't following the debate, but what do you mean "This verse." Are you suggesting that Jerome was inspired to correct a defect in some Apostle's writing?
I pinged you as one who tends to get into research and such issues, and this one basically goes back around here , and is one which SR just posted more on again.
When I respond to any post, I copy, quite mechanically, the visible part of the addressee list in my "Reply To" box. For example, I just copied "; daniel1212; BlueDragon; Springfield Reformer; boatbums" because they appear on your post to me.
Jerome condemned and rejected the apocrypha
Not quite, since he translated them. He did not like tham but that was his opinion overridden by the Church, and in the end he obeyed the Church. That is why he is a saint in heaven.
Are you suggesting that Jerome was inspired to correct a defect in some Apostle's writing?
That the Luke 1:28 translation "gratia plena" is inspired since "κεχαριτωμενη" does not have a direct Latin equivalent. I am aware that Jerome made some mistakes in his translation, but overall it is inspired work, even if not infallible.