[PhilipFreneau]

>>>You used Matt 2:21 in which this γῆν word is used. Then you used Matt 4:15 in which this γῆ word is used. You seem to be claiming they are all the same word with the same meaning. Do they really look the same to you? Seriously?<<<

So, we have a Greek Scholar on board Free Republic? Where were you when I asked for a Greek Scholar a few days ago: when I needed someone to verify my interpretation of 1 Thess 4:17?

Regarding your Greek, Young's Analytical Concordance uses the same Greek (γῆ) for both verses: Matt 2:21 and 4:15. So does Strong's. Which mss are you translating from? Why the variation from Strong's?

Since we have your attention, what is the difference in the translation for "land of Israel" (Matt 2:21) and "land of Zabulon" (Matt 4:15.) Both of the popular lexicons say they are the same. Were they using a different mss than you are translating from?

Philip

[CynicalBear]

>> Regarding your Greek, Young's Analytical Concordance uses the same Greek (γῆ) for both verses: Matt 2:21 and 4:15.<<

From the Greek.

Matt 2:21 γῆν
Matt 4:15 γῆ>/b>

Do those look like the same words to you?

One of these days you’ll figure out those Preterists you have been listening to aren’t as smart as you thought they were.

And no, I'm not interested in getting into an extended discussion with you.