I keep seeing this "we gave you the Bible" polemical statement (one today even said there were no Scriptures until Rome provided them), but never get a clear answer to the question i keep asking regarding the reason/argument behind it:
Are you saying that being the instruments and stewards of Scripture requires or renders them the infallible authority on it, so they that which they reject must be rejected?
You or any RC here can be the first out of many to answer this clearly.
Why no follow through? why the vague accusation in the first place?
Is it...to make others think...that "stuff you are posting" is not true...without being clear what that precisely is...leaving everyone to guess or assume it must be so, since hey, a 'catholic' said it -- must be right, eh? no further clarity of charge required...sort of like how the Inquisition operated (accused were never clearly told what "the charge" was, or if so, only by vague hints, and never as to basis or foundation)
Here, put this on, perhaps it may mollify them enough to let you live. This time