As a PCA member, I question this one. The most explicit instruction for worship is found in 1 Corinthians 14:27-37, which is ignored.
What’s ‘ignored’ is the reason tongues were given, and if they are still being used by God today. Which would be answered if 2 Tim. 2:15 were employed by Bible students. Were the Corinthians more ‘spiritual’ or had more ‘faith’ than others do today? Why, exactly, as Gentiles, were they given the gift of tongues? And you truly believe that 1 Cor. 14:27-37 is the ‘most explicit instruction for worship’? Today?