Based on your statement, we are to believe that the holy scriptures, “are not” able to make thee wise unto salvation through faith which is in Christ Jesus.
And then conclude the scriptures “are not fully” profitable for doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness: That the man of God may be perfect, throughly furnished unto all good works.
So therefore Paul said one thing in writing and yet another by tradition?
I am of the mind that God is not in the confusion business.
redleghunter:
I refuse to answer your questions using the Protestant heretical and unorthodox doctrine of sola scriptura. I answered the question in line with the Catholic Theological framework, i.e. the 3-leged chair approach, the Church as the Body of Christ interpreting the Scriptures in Light of Apostolic Tradition, as recorded and defined in the consensus of the Church Fathers, the Liturgy [Lex Orandi Lex Credendi, Law of Prayer explains the Law of Creed/Belief], the Creeds of the early Church and the COuncils of the Early Church and that Tradition in Light of the Sacred Scriptures.
And for the record, the Eastern Orthodox, while having a different understanding of the Primacy of the Bishop of Rome, have 7 Sacraments [Divine Mysteries] and believe in the Real Presence of Christ in the Holy Eucharist, just as the Catholic Church does.
I have answered what I have answered. And I stand by said answer.