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To: iowamark

The Early Church sang songs based upon many of the Psalms in the OT. Why then would they ignore what Psalm 150 said to do?

Which New Testament (NT) Apostle backs up what you said?

And where in the NT did the Early Church finding its inspiration for Latin/Gregorian-style “music”?


12 posted on 12/28/2013 10:33:46 AM PST by Laissez-faire capitalist
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To: Laissez-faire capitalist; iowamark; bunster
There's been some (fairly) recent research on this. Eric Werner, a Jewish composer and musicologist, and a refugee from Hitler's Germany, evaluated evidence that Gregorian Chant was based on the cantillation of the Jewish synagogue.

In the late 50's he published "The Sacred Bridge," in which he presented the evidence that Gregorian chant was indeed a direct descendant of Jewish synagogue music. (He later published an updated second edition with more data).

His points are:

Since then, researchers have done comparative histories of chant in the Catholic, Greek Orthodox, Slavic/Russian Orthodox, Syrian, Armenian, Ge'ez (Ethiopian) and other traditions.

It is really a fascinating study on the validity and continuity of oral tradition. You can hear some of this on the CD "The Sacred Bridge," (Boston Camerata?) It swings between Latin and Hebrew, Gregorian chant and synagogue cantillation. Some of the melodies are identical!

105 posted on 12/28/2013 1:46:38 PM PST by Mrs. Don-o (What does the LORD require of you, but to act justly, to love tenderly, to walk humbly with your God)
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To: Laissez-faire capitalist

I am just repeating history. I am sorry if that upsets you. The introduction of organ music into churches is traditionally ascribed to Pope Vitalian (657-672). The Protestant reformers generally condemned instrumental music as a Catholic heresy. It was not until the 20th century that many Protestant churches adopted instrumental music.


150 posted on 12/28/2013 11:18:32 PM PST by iowamark (I must study politics and war that my sons may have liberty to study mathematics and philosophy)
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