There is NOTHING in this text to suggest it is anything other than the rapture, especially since this letter was written to "...the church of the Thessalonians in God our Father and the Lord Jesus Christ..." (2 Thes 1:1)
Keeping 2 Thessalonians in context,
1 Concerning the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our being gathered to him, we ask you, brothers and sisters,
2 not to become easily unsettled or alarmed by the teaching allegedly from us—whether by a prophecy or by word of mouth or by letter—asserting that the day of the Lord has already come.
3 Don’t let anyone deceive you in any way, for that day will not come until the rebellion occurs and the man of lawlessness is revealed, the man doomed to destruction.
When is our gathering to the Lord? Accoring to this passage, it is synonymous with "The Day of the Lord". Next, this day won't come until the man of lawlessness is revealed.
Once more, you twist the scriptures to fit your theory. The only evidence you can produce is that is does not fit your theory, so it can't be the church who is gathered, as evidenced by your statement
QUOTE: "...So far the passages you used have no relationship to what is going to happen to the “church”. "
Show ANYTHING in the context that remotely suggests this is not the church Paul is referring to!
See post 259.