Again you have to manipulate the lexicon to draw a different conclusion. What Bible version are you using? I ask because "theos" is not in the OT Hebrew.
If you are using what the Eastern Orthodox use in the LXX the "gods" of Psalm 82 is plural. If you are making a corrolation between the use of "my God" and the "gods" of Psalm 82, then explain your version of the pantheon of Christianity.
When Thomas said "My Lord and my God" it was not 'my Lord and one of the gods; or a god." To apply your example, it would result in Thomas calling Jesus "his" 'god' therefore going against the knowledge Thomas had of the Law which says there is only "One True God." So you have to change the Hebrew and Greek lexicons everywhere else in Scriptures to fit your excuse that Thomas did not mean God, but "gods." Makes no sense at all and seems to be a "hail Mary pass" to explain away an actual profession by Thomas that Jesus Christ is Lord AND God.
Which brings us to the point again if Jesus is not Truly God and Truly man, then what Nature does He have? Is He a demigod, a god with a small 'g', or just a man who for a time had the Presence of God? Using your selection of verses and associated lexicon, then when should a translator use "God" for "'elohiym"? Of course each literal translation which employs multiple Greek and Hebrew scholars must determine when to use "God" vs. "angels" or "divine ones" or "judges" for "'elohiym" based on the context. The very same for "theos" in singular for "God" and the plural "gods."
And to be clear on the matter, we do not have any apostle or believer using "theos" outside of it referring to God Almighty. And that was exactly what Thomas knew and proclaimed. He said "My Lord and my God." So again, if Jesus was not God with a capital "G" then what is He? Was the Son of God created or the Creator? If God Created all things and the Bible tells us Jesus, The Word created the World, then you have a problem explaining that.
Finally, John 20:28 is only one verse and passage in so many other posters have posited here to include the original poster. So like the prederists et. al. you like to argue points others present without presenting your own polemic.
Excellent answers, dude. Merry Christmas. I know you will celebrate the fact that Jesus was born humbly in a manger and that when He is called Immanuel, you know the true meaning and can appreciate it deeply.
“Again you have to manipulate the lexicon to draw a different conclusion. What Bible version are you using? I ask because “theos” is not in the OT Hebrew.”
It’s a Septuagint translation of the Hebrew “Elohim”
“When Thomas said “My Lord and my God” it was not ‘my Lord and one of the gods; or a god.” To apply your example, it would result in Thomas calling Jesus “his” ‘god’ therefore going against the knowledge Thomas had of the Law which says there is only “One True God.” So you have to change the Hebrew and Greek lexicons everywhere else in Scriptures to fit your excuse that Thomas did not mean God, but “gods.”
More accurately, using “theos” in correct context here Thomas was saying my Lord and master, person of authority, so he would not be going against his “One True God” belief.
As Michaelis a Trinitarian even acknowledged, regarding Thomas:
“I do not affirm that Thomas passed all at once from the extreme of doubt to the highest degree of faith, and acknowledged Christ to be the true God. This appears to me too much for the then existing knowledge of the disciples; and we have no intimation that they recognized the divine nature of Christ before the outpouring of the Holy Spirit. I am therefore inclined to understand this expression, which broke out in the height of his astonishment, in a figurative sense, denoting only “whom I shall ever reverence in the highest degree”…Or a person raised from the dead might be regarded as a divinity; for the word God is not always used in the strict doctrinal sense” (Concessions of Trinitarians, pp. 23-25,)”