To: smvoice; redleghunter; CynicalBear; metmom; boatbums; caww; presently no screen name; ...
Paul's first six Epistles (1 and 2 Thess.; Gal.; 1 and 2 Cor.; and Rom.) are those whereby he went to the Jew first (Rom. 1:16 with Acts 13:5,14,46). He performed many miracles, signs and wonders (Acts 19:12) and legal ceremonies (Acts 16:3-4), ...."because of the Jews")(Acts 16:3) with (1 Cor. 9:20-23; 10:32). I honestly find this to a contrivance. As said above , they preached the same gospel to each, and there simply is no real difference in the gospel message preached in theses 6 books verses the others. .
And which would have confused the church, which, as in the churches these epistles were written to, was a mixture of Jews and Gentiles. And with the latter being whom the most miracles were provided for
97 posted on
11/23/2013 7:51:03 PM PST by
daniel1212
(Come to the Lord Jesus as a contrite damned+destitute sinner, trust Him to save you, then live 4 Him)
To: daniel1212; CynicalBear
Then please show me from Scripture when Peter first preached the same gospel that Paul preached. Paul calls his “my gospel”, ROm 2:16. Not “our gospel”. And where did Paul get his gospel from? Was he taught it by the 12?
99 posted on
11/23/2013 7:57:05 PM PST by
smvoice
(HELP! I'm trapped inside this body and I can't get out!)
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