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To: daniel1212; smvoice; redleghunter; Iscool; metmom
Well, let’s do this in more detail then.

Your comment once again.

>>>>Paul actually only uses the term "my gospel" thrice, (Rm. 2:16; 16:25; 2Tim. 2:8) but perhaps that counts as "several," yet he also thrice refers to it as "our gospel," (2Cor. 4:3; 1Ths. 1:5; 2Ths. 2:14)<<

The first three verses.

Romans 2:16 In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my (mou/egó ) [Strong’s # 1473] gospel.

Romans 16:25 Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my (mou/egó ) [Strong’s # 1473] gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began,

2 Timothy 2:8 Remember that Jesus Christ of the seed of David was raised from the dead according to my (mou/egó) [Strong’s # 1473] gospel:

(mou/egó) [Strong’s # 1473]
Word Origin: a prim. pronoun of the first pers.
Definition: I, the first-person pronoun. I (only expressed when emphatic)

The second three verses.

2 Corinthians 4:3 But if our (hēmōn/egó) [Strong’s # 1473] gospel be hid, it is hid to them that are lost 1 Thessalonians 1:5 For our (hēmōn/egó) [Strong’s # 1473] gospel came not unto you in word only, but also in power, and in the Holy Ghost, and in much assurance; as ye know what manner of men we were among you for your sake. 2 Thessalonians 2:14 Whereunto he called you by our (hēmōn/egó) [Strong’s # 1473] gospel, to the obtaining of the glory of our Lord Jesus Christ.

(hēmōn/egó) [Strong’s # 1473]
Word Origin: a prim. pronoun of the first pers.
Definition: I, the first-person pronoun. I (only expressed when emphatic)

According to Strong, Thayer, NASEC, and Englishman’s the Greek words used in ALL those texts mean the same thing. http://biblesuite.com/greek/1473.htm

263 posted on 11/26/2013 10:00:55 AM PST by CynicalBear (For I decided to know nothing among you except Jesus Christ)
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To: CynicalBear; smvoice; redleghunter; Iscool; metmom; Greetings_Puny_Humans; Godzilla; HarleyD

Your comment once again.>>>>Paul actually only uses the term "my gospel" thrice, (Rm. 2:16; 16:25; 2Tim. 2:8) but perhaps that counts as "several," yet he also thrice refers to it as "our gospel," (2Cor. 4:3; 1Ths. 1:5; 2Ths. 2:14)<<

According to Strong, Thayer, NASEC, and Englishman’s the Greek words used in ALL those texts mean the same thing. http://biblesuite.com/greek/1473.htm

Not they do not, for as shown , as the word used is not G1473, but G3450 (my) and G2257 (our), respectively. And what you are doing is using the root (G1473) for G2257 to define what a word precisely means, which is invalid, and would enable ignoring the distinctions made hundreds of times btwn the singular and plural.

This is simply untenable, and appears to be an example of result of the "the root fallacy," in which a person assumes that the meaning of a word must be bound to the meaning of its etymological root. More here .

294 posted on 11/26/2013 3:17:44 PM PST by daniel1212 (Come to the Lord Jesus as a contrite damned+destitute sinner, trust Him to save you, then live 4 Him)
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