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To: dangus

Not a bad idea. I did read Tobit...When I got to the burning fish guts to ward off demons, my “Danger Will Robinson” alarm went off.

How about this.

1. Pick one reference to the Apocrypha you feel strongly Jesus or the apostles addressed or referred to which stands alone without other OT references to the same. Just one is all I am asking. That should hone it down to strongest argument critera and eliminate us both flipping back and forth trying to answer multiple questions.

2. This can be a follow up to #1 once we have established the strongest argument. We can transition to discussions on how the Apocrypha influences Christology and influences our Soteriology. This is basically the “sufficiency” question. Are the 39 OT and 27 NT books not sufficient enough without the Apocrypha.

3. After this we could discuss doctrines derived from the Apocrypha and if they are in conflict with doctrines stated in the 39 OT and 27 NT books. Do we have contradictions?

Again let’s not dive in to all the above until we address #1 above.

Final note. As I stated in a previous post. One could argue for Maccabees from a “prophecy fulfillment” stand point. Events recorded in Maccabees touch on fulfilled prophecies of Daniel. On the other hand so do the era accounts of Josephus.


91 posted on 11/05/2013 1:57:37 PM PST by redleghunter
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To: redleghunter

1. All my posts were in reference to 2 Maccabees.
2./3. If it passes test #2, you’ll assert that the doctrine is false, because your own personal opinion of scripture will have been formed denying the deuterocanonical doctrines.
If it passes test #3, you’ll say it wasn’t necessary for doctrine.
But the truth is sublime: 2 Maccabees is necessary for properly understanding the doctrine present but admittedly somewhat vaguely stated in Hebrews, Revelation and 2 Peter.

For instance, Shysters preying on Protestants (like Joseph Smith) have come up with all sorts of nonsense to explain what “baptizing for the sake of the dead” refers to. But if you understand from Maccabees the notion that doing good deeds can help you atone for the sins of people in purgatory, then we can understand that “for the sake of the dead” means that the blessed act of baptism isn’t only helping those baptized, but the good deeds help those whose name they are done in be lifted out of purgatory.

Since you ascribe to doctrines opposed to Maccabees, you won’t accept that this is what “baptism for the sake of the dead” means.


92 posted on 11/05/2013 2:28:13 PM PST by dangus
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