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You cannot rely on the published versions of the gospels to relate Jewish tradition, because they were translated from the original Hebrew to Aramaic, and from Aramaic to Greek. the Greek translators clearly had no clues WRT Torah or tradition, and muffed many important details. Only the discovery of the Hebrew copies of the original Hebrew writings of Mattiyahu have allowed full understanding of the events, and also led to the correction of numerous errors (or were they deliberate corruptions?) in the other three gospels.

Mark, in particular is very shallow on detail, and unless we find a copy of the true original, we may never know why.

The curious insertion of an out of place and fictitious “Passover” in John 6 is another hum dinger. Yom Teruah was the feast that was on the agenda in that chapter, not Passover. Can you imagine Yeshua feeding the 5000 with levened barley loaves on the eve of a Passover? And then not going up to Jerusalem, but across the Galilee?

Both this and the Protestant position appear to be that God was either unwilling or too weak to prevent the Church he founded from teaching sin and error. However, the above position makes more sense than the Protestant position as it implies that God was either too weak or too unwilling to prevent the Catholic Church from corrupting scripture. However, this makes less sense than Islam, which holds that God only waited 300 years not 1200 or 1700 years (assuming that Constantine is the point at which the RCC corrupted Christianity) to correct for the problem (unless God was too weak or to try again).

The understanding that this was Yom Teruah comes from Succot occuring in John 7 (as opposed to a different holiday). Interestingly, John only mentions that some time after Jesus had been wandering around Galilee did Succot happen not that it happened shortly there after. The feeding of the 5000 in John 6 clearly happened shortly before Passover, but it does not say on Passover eve. There is a reason for the bread of life discourse to happen just before Passover; Jesus is the new Paschal Lamb and will deliver us from slavery to sin as Passover was instituted to commemorate the Jews being delivered from bondage in Egypt. The concern about Jesus feeding people leavened bread just before Passover is without merit; one is permitted to eat leavened bread up until 14 Nissan.

But why did Jesus not go to Jerusalem if Passover were near? John provides an answer, some Jews in Judea were looking to kill Jesus.

Lots of typical catholic erroneous comments spewing uncontrollably from your keyboard.

>> “Both this and the Protestant position appear to be that God was either unwilling or too weak to prevent the Church he founded from teaching sin and error” <<

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The Whore and her daughters is not just catholic in nature; it does include many protestants too. Yehova did protect his word by preserving sufficient copies of the Hebrew original of Matthew’s gospel for the time that it really matters.

The deliberate corruption that the RCC fostered is very much a part of Yehova’s plan, as he so clearly states in the Revelation.

He does not claim to be saving the masses, but a small remnant to enjoy his rest.

The “passover” in John 6 was a false addition by an obvious non-Jew translator, as can be seen by the lack of understanding shown. John would never have called Passover “a feast of the Jews” since he clearly knew that it was a required feast for all the nations. The time setting is clarified by comparison with the other gospels, thus proving beyond any doubt that the impending feast was Yom Teruah, and that the elapsed time was exactly correct to match the Sukkot mentioned in chapter 7.

Finally, Yeshua could not miss any required feast, since a violation of Torah would have disqualified him from the sinlessness needed to be the perfect sacrifice. He fulfilled every requirement, including those that trouble the false doctrines of the Whore and her daughters.