[verga]

Perhaps St. Matthew rendered it that way to prevent the exact reading you're trying to argue. The masculine form, Petros, applies clearly to Peter. If the second reference applies to the statement of faith, using the feminine form, Petra, aligns with the feminine gender of faith. Why would Matthew mix genders if both refer to Peter?

Because that is the way it is done in the Greek. They have their own rules of grammar and do not translate easily into English. If Jesus had truly meant to refer to him as a "small stone" there is a perfectly good word, "lithos."

Further in John 1:42 Jesus refers to Peter as Kephas/ Cephas. In the Aramaic this means rock any way you slice it.

[CommerceComet]

Because that is the way it is done in the Greek.

What rule of Greek grammar would have Matthew refer to Peter with both masculine and feminine genders? It seems much more likely that Matthew is referring to two things, hence, the words of different genders.