Denying that the Greek manuscripts are the infallible word of God seems very close to saying that only the Jews could have received God’s word. That Gentiles were not worthy. When we KNOW that NOW there is no difference in God’s eyes. WHO was He to give His word to? The Jews had been blinded and set aside. There was still the fullness of the Gentiles that He was bringing in. HELLO...WHO would He give His word to???
Which of the authors of the NT were not Jews?
WHO was He to give His word to? The Jews had been blinded and set aside. There was still the fullness of the Gentiles that He was bringing in. HELLO...WHO would He give His word to???
Your question is answered by finding out WHO the 'Fullness of the Gentiles' is.