This is the description of who, what, where, when, and then comes the why of the message Christ decided to give him - us. And we can figure out this instruction was not given by the Pharisees.
John 3:2 The same came to Jesus by night, (in secret) and said unto Him, "Rabbi, we know that Thou art a teacher come from God: for no man can do these miracles that Thou doest, except God be with him."
Who is this 'we' that Nicodemus speaks of?
Christ knew what the Pharisees taught and believed. And the instruction Christ set about to give was not new. We can know this by John 3:10 Jesus answered and said unto him, "Art thou a master of Israel, and knowest not these things?
John 3:3 Jesus answered and said unto him, "Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born from above, (by Divine power) he cannot see the kingdom of God."
It seems that little study is done in what most Christians consider the 'old' done away with Testament, except for a verse here and there I will go to a New Testament verse to illustrate this instruction.
Hebrews 2:14 Forasmuch then as the children are *partakers of flesh and blood, He also likewise took part of the same; that through death He might destroy him that had the power of death, that is, the devil;
We know that 'life' in these flesh bodies begins at conception by the description given to us of Christ from Luke. We also know that there are a numbered fallen angels and only one named entity, the devil that will not be allowed to be born from above. They have already been judged to death.
What did the Pharisees, teach/believe?
John 3:4 Nicodemus saith unto Him, "How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?"
Nicodemus did not understand what was said. Yet Nicodemus was born already from above when his soul/spirit intellect was placed in his mother's womb at conception.
John 3:5 Jesus answered, "Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
What happens at conception? Why the soul/spirit intellect sent by God is placed in the 'water' = womb.
John 3:6 That which is born of the flesh is flesh .... (Ecc 12:7 Then shall the dust (flesh) return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God Who gave it.) and that which is born of the Spirit is spirit.
John 3:7 Marvel not that I said unto thee, Ye must be born from above.
John 3:8 The wind bloweth where it listeth, and thou hearest the sound thereof, but canst not tell whence it cometh, and whither it goeth: so is every one that is born of the spirit.
John 3:9 Nicodemus answered and said unto Him, "How can these things be?"
John 3:10 Jesus answered and said unto him, "Art thou a master of Israel, and knowest not these things?
John 3:11 Verily, verily, I say unto thee, We speak that we do know, and testify that we have seen; and ye received not our witness.
John 3:12 IF I have told you earthly things, and ye believe not, how shall ye believe, IF I tell you of heavenly things?
John 3:13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but He That came down from heaven, even the Son of man Which is in heaven.
John 3:13 explains in the simple term what Christ told Nicodemus, who as a master of Israel should have already known.
When the flesh body dies it returns to the dust from which it came, but the soul/spirit intellect that came from God, returns to Him. The good the bad and the ugly! We can know this from the parable of the rich man and Lazarus.
We also know that only the devil is named and a numbered of fallen angels of Genesis 6 and Jude will not have opportunity to 'see' or 'enter' the kingdom of God.
I didn't bother reading that lengthy tome. I stopped right after seeing that you think of yourself as my teacher, and that I lack any understanding of the Scriptures. I prefer to trust in the Holy Spirit to teach me, thank you.
A basic, and I do mean basic, exegesis teaches who Jesus was talking to and that same exegesis reveals that the term that he uses refers to being “born again”, and all your rhetoric about this and that does not change that meaning, as we see in Jesus's response to Nic that his reference was to a spiritual rebirth. But, Nicodemus heard the words as “born-again” like coming out of the womb. What is confusing about that?
All of you talk about fallen Angels and other extraneous verbiage does nothing to establish your authority. Actually, it tells me the opposite. Though you may be trying to say something of value, your words come through from a tangent. Any spirit filled Christian can understand the simple words that set to paper through men, both from the Old Testament and the New. It is the same Spirit that he raised Christ from the dead and made it possible for us to be “born again”!
Try again somewhere else, as I cannot take anymore of your thoughts. As stated above, I will trust the Holy Spirit to teach me. It is after Pentecost, you know!
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Just to add something from the Internet, after simply searching:
...Being God's people under the old covenant, the Jews needed to be "born again" by entering into the new covenant upon termination of the old one; but how could they if they rejected the mediator of that new covenant? (Heb. 9:13-15) Only by entering into the new covenant could they inherit the promise God had made them: "And you yourselves will become to me a kingdom of priests and a holy nation," for it was by means of the new covenant that this was to be fulfilled. (Exodus 19:5,6) That is why Jesus said to Nicodemus: "Unless anyone is born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God." (John 3:3) ..."Born again"-What did Jesus mean?